Correct Answers :

[A, D]

Explanation :

• A. Correct: Only blobs have writable system properties.
• B. Incorrect: Blob user-defined metadata is accessed as a key value pair.
• C. Incorrect: System metadata can influence how the blob is stored and accessed in Azure Storage.
• D. Correct: Containers also have system properties and user-defined metadata..

Correct Answers :

[B and D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: Page files are not faster for streaming files, but are very good for random I/O files like VHDs.
• B. Correct: Block blobs allow files to be uploaded and assembled later. Blocks can be resubmitted individually.
• C. Incorrect: Page blobs are for hard disks, not files for streaming.
• D. Correct: Block blobs have a maximum size of 200 GB. Page blobs can be 1 terabyte.

Correct Answers :

[A]

Explanation :

• A. Correct: Transactional replication is used in Microsoft SQL Server. Table storage doesn’t have anything like that.
• B. Incorrect: Zone redundant storage is valid.
• C. Incorrect: Read access geo-redundant storage is valid.
• D. Incorrect: Geo-redundant storage is valid.

Correct Answers :

[C, D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: They should not necessarily be unique, although they can be for rare-use cases.
• B. Incorrect: You should only use the same partition key if you have a very small entity set.
• C. Correct: Batches can only have operations that exist in the same partition, with the same partition key.
• D. Correct: Even partition sizes will give your application predictable performance because one partition server won’t be unevenly loaded with more entities than the others.

Correct Answers :

[B]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: Storage queue messages have a size limit of 64 KB. It is true, however, that a smaller message size can increase throughput since the storage service can support more requests per second when those requests hold a smaller amount of data.
• B. Correct: Storage queues can only store up to 64 KB per message.
• C. Incorrect: Storage queue messages expire after seven days, unlike Service Bus Queue messages, which are persisted until explicitly read and removed.
• D. Incorrect: The message identifier should be considered opaque to the client, although it is returned from the AddMessage() method. When retrieving messages from the queue for processing, the message identifier is provided so that you can use it to subsequently delete the message.

Correct Answers :

[C, D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: A single compute instance can process as many messages as its resources allow for. For example, if processing a message is memory intensive, the number of parallel messages that can be processed will depend on the amount of memory to be consumed for each message that is processed.
• B. Incorrect: A single compute instance can process as many messages as its resources allow for. For example, if processing a message is memory intensive, the number of parallel messages that can be processed will depend on the amount of memory to be consumed for each message that is processed.
• C. Correct: The queue client can request up to 32 messages in a single batch and then process them sequentially or in parallel. Each request from the queue client can request another 32 messages.
• D. Correct: The queue client can request a single message or request up to 32 messages in a batch for processing. E. Incorrect: Messages are not deleted when the message is read. Messages must be explicitly deleted.

Correct Answers :

[A, C, D, and E]

Explanation :

• A. Correct: You can generate an SAS token that grants read access to blobs. You can also grant access to modify a blob’s contents.
• B. Incorrect: You cannot grant access to create new containers using SAS. This operation requires the storage access key.
• C. Correct: You can grant access to an existing queue and allow add, update, and delete operations using SAS tokens.
• D. Correct: You can grant access to an existing table and allow add, update, and delete operations on entities within that table.
• E. Correct: You can grant access to query the entities of an existing table using SAS tokens.

Correct Answers :

[A, B, and C]

Explanation :

• A. Correct: You can change both the start and expiration dates of an SAS token that is attached to a stored access policy.
• B. Correct: You can revoke all access by an SAS token that is attached to a stored access policy.
• C. Correct: You
can revoke specific operations by an SAS token that is attached to a stored access policy. For example, you can remove support for delete operations that were originally granted.
• D. Incorrect: You can use the same stored access policy for multiple resources (such as multiple blobs, for example) but this is done at the time of producing the SAS token and associating the stored access policy to the token. You cannot add resources at the policy level.

Correct Answers :

[A]

Explanation :

• A. Correct: Capacity metrics include total storage in bytes, the container count, and the object count for blob storage only.
• B. Incorrect: You can only set minute metrics programmatically or by using Windows PowerShell cmdlets.
• C. Incorrect: By default, retention is not specified, therefore metrics are retained indefinitely. You should set the retention policy to match your compliance requirements and seek to archive if beyond one year.
• D. Incorrect: If you disable metrics, all metrics previously collected will be retained until the retention period expires.

Correct Answers :

[B, D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: Logs are stored in a $logs container in Blob storage for your storage account, but the log capacity is not included in your storage account quota. A separate 20-terabyte allocation is made for storage logs.
• B. Correct: Logs can have duplicate entries within a one-hour period; however, you can identify a log entry uniquely with a RequestId and operation number.
• C. Incorrect: The log container cannot be deleted once in use, but the logs within that container can be deleted by authorized callers.
• D. Correct: You can log all or individual operations to all storage services.

Correct Answers :

[D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: The secondary database must have the same name as the primary.
• B. Incorrect: They must be on separate servers.
• C. Incorrect: They need to be on the same subscription.
• D. Correct: The secondary server cannot be a lower performance tier than the primary.

Correct Answers :

[B, C, D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: CPU Processor Count is not a valid metric
• B. Correct: CPU Percentage is a valid metric.
• C. Correct: Physical Data Reads Percentage is a valid metric.
• D. Correct: Log Writes Percentage is a valid metric.

Correct Answers :

[D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: Azure AD roles are assigned only to users who have access to administer the Azure AD instance. These roles are not used for application-specific authorization.
• B. Incorrect: You can optionally create Azure AD groups to use for application authorization of users in your directory; however, Azure AD roles are used to authorize access to Azure AD functionality.
• C. Incorrect: Azure AD groups are application specific. Azure AD roles are used to authorize administrative access to directory features.
• D. Correct: Azure AD roles and groups can both be queried using the Graph API. You will typically query groups for a logged in user to authorize access within your application.

Correct Answers :

[C]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: OAuth is an authorization protocol, not an authentication protocol. You can use WS-Federation, SAML-P, or OpenID Connect (an extension to OAuth) as browser-based authentication protocols.
• B. Incorrect: OpenID Connect requires that the application is trusted by identifying the application URI provided in the request for user authentication, but the client identifier is not used for this flow. The client identifier is required for OAuth requests, and, in cases where the user is not authenticating, the client key (secret) is also required.
• C. Correct: Azure AD supports generating client keys for one or two years in the management portal.
• D. Incorrect: The sign-on URL identifies the URL that Azure AD will redirect back to after authenticating the user. The application URI is an identifier and does not have to be a live endpoint, but it must be unique across all applications in the Azure AD tenant.

Correct Answers :

[A, C]

Explanation :

• A. Correct: You can use virtual networks to make resources in separate regions behave as if they are on one network.
• B. Incorrect: Resources on a virtual network don’t go through endpoints for connectivity.
• C. Correct: Virtual networks will make Azure VMs and cloud services available as if they were local to the on-premises users.
• D. Incorrect: Virtual networks do not make your local network fault tolerant.

Correct Answers :

[C]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: You cannot deploy a cloud service from the existing portal.
• B. Incorrect: You cannot deploy a cloud service from the Preview portal.
• C. Correct: You can deploy a cloud service by supplying virtual network configuration details in the network configuration file.
• D. Incorrect: You can deploy a cloud service using the network configuration file.

Correct Answers :

[C, D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: You can’t do this with existing services on it.
• B. Incorrect: You can’t do this with existing services on it.
• C. Correct: You can always add a new subnet.
• D. Correct: This is how you would migrate and keep all your resources on one subnet.

Correct Answers :

[A, B, C and D]

Explanation :

• A. Correct: To back it up.
• B. Correct: To make update changes to it.
• C. Correct: To learn from it so you can make new networks by hand.
• D. Correct: To use it as a template

Correct Answers :

[B, C, D]

Explanation :

• A. Incorrect: Relays are optimized to work with WCF; however, it is possible to implement non-WCF endpoints to listen to relay services.
• B. Correct: Although well-known ports like 80 and 443 can also be restricted on a network, it is less likely than the other ports required to perform TCP communications using non-HTTP relay bindings. By requiring HTTP, you can ensure that only an HTTP binding is used for relay communications.
• C. Correct: The number of client and server listeners are restricted by the messaging tier chosen for the namespace. The limit is 100 for basic tier and 1,000 for standard tier.
• D. Correct: Relays use an outbound connection to establish communications with Service Bus. No inbound communication is supported.

Correct Answers :

[A, B, D]

Explanation :

• A. Correct: Since both relays and queues rely on Service Bus for implementation, queues can be a substitute for relays in that they allow for the on-premises listener to request messages using a protocol that is suitable for the environment. In addition, it provides a temporal and physical decoupling of client and server, which can also improve scalability in the overall design.
• B. Correct: Theoretically, you can build a publish-and-subscribe solution using queues; however, the implementation requires quite a lot of custom coding, so that is not recommended. Topics and subscriptions are built for publish-and-subscribe solutions and provide out-of-the-box infrastructure for this purpose using coding similar to that of queues at the client and service. For publish and subscribe, choose topics.
• C. Incorrect: You can disable any Service Bus feature with the state property without removing the entity from the subscription. Each Service Bus entity provides a state property that can be disabled in the management portal or programmatically through management tools like Windows PowerShell. This allows you to disable processing while still maintaining the actual entity for later use.
• D. Correct: Partitions can be set when you create the queue or topic. This allocates additional message brokers for handling incoming messages to the entity, and this increases scale.