Updated Syllabus of Aws Certified Solutions Architect Associate Certification Exam Online Test for free Part 5 Infibee.com

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Instructions

Total Questions 20
Each question carry 1 mark
Must answer all the questions (otherwise report card will not be generated)
If you dont want to take a test, simply click the check answers button and view all the answers with explanations
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No Time Limit
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1. Auto Scaling supports which of the following plans for Auto Scaling groups? (Choose 3 answers)

A.
Predictive
B.
Manual
C.
Preemptive
D.
Scheduled
E.
Dynamic
F.
End-user request driven
G.
Optimistic

Correct Answers :

[B, D, E]

Explanation :

Auto Scaling supports maintaining the current size of an Auto Scaling group using four plans: maintain current levels, manual scaling, scheduled scaling, and dynamic scaling.

2. Elastic Load Balancing supports which of the following types of load balancers? (Choose 3 answers)

A.
Cross-region
B.
Internet-facing
C.
Interim
D.
Itinerant
E.
Internal
F.
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

Correct Answers :

[B, E, F]

Explanation :

Elastic Load Balancing supports Internet-facing, internal, and HTTPS load balancers.

3. What is the format of an IAM policy?

A.
XML
B.
Key/value pairs
C.
JSON
D.
Tab-delimited text

Correct Answers :

[C]

Explanation :

An IAM policy is a JSON document.

4. You want to grant the individuals on your network team the ability to fully manipulate Amazon EC2 instances. Which of the following accomplish this goal? (Choose 2 answers)

A.
Create a new policy allowing EC2:* actions, and name the policy NetworkTeam.
B.
Assign the managed policy, EC2FullAccess, to a group named NetworkTeam, and assign all the team members’ IAM user accounts to that group.
C.
Create a new policy that grants EC2:* actions on all resources, and assign that policy to each individual’s IAM user account on the network team.
D.
Create a NetworkTeam IAM group, and have each team member log in to the AWS Management Console using the user name/password for the group.

Correct Answers :

[B, C]

Explanation :

Access requires an appropriate policy associated with a principal. Response A is merely a policy with no principal, and response D is not a principal as IAM groups do not have user names and passwords. Response B is the best solution; response C will also work but it is much harder to manage.

5. Which of the following workloads are a good fit for running on Amazon Redshift? (Choose 2 answers)

A.
Transactional database supporting a busy e-commerce order processing website
B.
Reporting database supporting back-office analytics
C.
Data warehouse used to aggregate multiple disparate data sources
D.
Manage session state and user profile data for thousands of concurrent users

Correct Answers :

[B, C]

Explanation :

Amazon Redshift is an Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) data warehouse designed for analytics, Extract, Transform, Load (ETL), and high-speed querying. It is not well suited for running transactional applications that require high volumes of small inserts or updates.

6. Which of the following statements about Amazon DynamoDB tables are true? (Choose 2 answers)

A.
Global secondary indexes can only be created when the table is being created
B.
Local secondary indexes can only be created when the table is being created.
C.
You can only have one global secondary index.
D.
You can only have one local secondary index.

Correct Answers :

[B, D]

Explanation :

You can only have a single local secondary index, and it must be created at the same time the table is created. You can create many global secondary indexes after the table has been created.

7. Can an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) message be deleted after being published to a topic?

A.
Only if a subscriber(s) has/have not read the message yet
B.
Only if the Amazon SNS recall message parameter has been set
C.
No. After a message has been successfully published to a topic, it cannot be recalled.
D.
Yes. However it can be deleted only if the subscribers are Amazon SQS queues.

Correct Answers :

[C]

Explanation :

No. After a message has been successfully published to a topic, it cannot be recalled.

8. What should you do in order to grant a different AWS account permission to your Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue?

A.
Share credentials to your AWS account and have the other account’s applications use your account’s credentials to access the Amazon SQS queue.
B.
Create a user for that account in AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) and establish an IAM policy that grants access to the queue.
C.
Create an Amazon SQS policy that grants the other account access.
D.
Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) peering must be used to achieve this.

Correct Answers :

[C]

Explanation :

The main difference between Amazon SQS policies and IAM policies is that an Amazon SQS policy enables you to grant a different AWS account permission to your Amazon SQS queues, but an IAM policy does not.

9. When configuring Amazon Route 53 as your DNS service for an existing domain, which is the first step that needs to be performed??

A.
Create hosted zones.
B.
Create resource record sets.
C.
Register a domain with Amazon Route 53.
D.
Transfer domain registration from current registrar to Amazon Route 53.

Correct Answers :

[D]

Explanation :

You must first transfer the existing domain registration from another registrar to Amazon Route 53 to configure it as your DNS service.

10. Amazon Route 53 cannot route queries to which AWS resource?

A.
Amazon CloudFront distribution
B.
Elastic Load Balancing load balancer
C.
Amazon EC2
D.
AWS OpsWorks

Correct Answers :

[D]

Explanation :

Amazon Route 53 can route queries to a variety of AWS resources such as an Amazon CloudFront distribution, an Elastic Load Balancing load balancer, an Amazon EC2 instance, a website hosted in an Amazon S3 bucket, and an Amazon Relational Database (Amazon RDS).

11. Which cache engines does Amazon ElastiCache support? (Choose 2 answers)

A.
Memcached
B.
Redis
C.
Membase
D.
Couchbase

Correct Answers :

[A, B]

Explanation :

Amazon ElastiCache supports both Memcached and Redis. You can run selfmanaged installations of Membase and Couchbase using Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2).

12. You have built a large web application that uses Amazon ElastiCache using Memcached to store frequent query results. You plan to expand both the web fleet and the cache fleet multiple times over the next year to accommodate increased user traffic. How do you minimize the amount of changes required when a scaling event occurs?

A.
Configure AutoDiscovery on the client side
B.
Configure AutoDiscovery on the server side
C.
Update the configuration file each time a new cluster
D.
Use an Elastic Load Balancer to proxy the requests

Correct Answers :

[A]

Explanation :

When the clients are configured to use AutoDiscovery, they can discover new cache nodes as they are added or removed. AutoDiscovery must be configured on each client and is not active server side. Updating the configuration file each time will be very difficult to manage. Using an Elastic Load Balancer is not recommended for this scenario.

13. All of the website deployments are currently done by your company’s development team. With a surge in website popularity, the company is looking for ways to be more agile with deployments. What AWS cloud service can help the developers focus more on writing code instead of spending time managing and configuring servers, databases, load balancers, firewalls, and networks?

A.
AWS Config
B.
AWS Trusted Advisor
C.
Amazon Kinesis
D.
AWS Elastic Beanstalk

Correct Answers :

[D]

Explanation :

AWS Elastic Beanstalk is the fastest and simplest way to get an application up and running on AWS. Developers can simply upload their application code, and the service automatically handles all the details such as resource provisioning, load balancing, Auto Scaling, and monitoring.

14. Your company works with data that requires frequent audits of your AWS environment to ensure compliance with internal policies and best practices. In order to perform these audits, you need access to historical configurations of your resources to evaluate relevant configuration changes. Which service will provide the necessary information for your audits?

A.
AWS Config
B.
AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
C.
AWS CloudTrail
D.
AWS OpsWorks

Correct Answers :

[A]

Explanation :

AWS Config is a fully managed service that provides you with an AWS resource inventory, configuration history, and configuration change notifications to enable security and governance. With AWS Config, you can discover existing and deleted AWS resources, determine your overall compliance against rules, and dive into configuration details of a resource at any point in time. These capabilities enable compliance auditing.

15.To help prevent data loss due to the failure of any single hardware component, Amazon Elastic Block Storage (Amazon EBS) automatically replicates EBS volume data to which of the following?

A.
Amazon EBS replicates EBS volume data within the same Availability Zone in a region.
B.
Amazon EBS replicates EBS volume data across other Availability Zones within the same region.
C.
Amazon EBS replicates EBS volume data across Availability Zones in the same region and in Availability Zones in one other region.
D.
Amazon EBS replicates EBS volume data across Availability Zones in the same region and in Availability Zones in every other region.

Correct Answers :

[A]

Explanation :

When you create an Amazon EBS volume in an Availability Zone, it is automatically replicated within that Availability Zone to prevent data loss due to failure of any single hardware component. An EBS Snapshot creates a copy of an EBS volume to Amazon S3 so that copies of the volume can reside in different Availability Zones within a region.

16. Which of the following describes how Amazon Elastic MapReduce (Amazon EMR) protects access to the cluster?

A.
The master node and the slave nodes are launched into an Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC).
B.
The master node supports a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection from the key specified at cluster launch.
C.
The master node is launched into a security group that allows Secure Shell (SSH) and service access, while the slave nodes are launched into a separate security group that only permits communication with the master node.
D.
The master node and slave nodes are launched into a security group that allows SSH and service access.

Correct Answers :

[C]

Explanation :

Amazon EMR starts your instances in two Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) security groups, one for the master and another for the slaves. The master security group has a port open for communication with the service. It also has the SSH port open to allow you to securely connect to the instances via SSH using the key specified at startup. The slaves start in a separate security group, which only allows interaction with the master instance. By default, both security groups are set up to prevent access from external sources, including Amazon EC2 instances belonging to other customers. Because these are security groups in your account, you can reconfigure them using the standard Amazon EC2 tools or dashboard.

17. Which of the following is NOT a recommended approach for customers trying to achieve strong compliance and governance over an entire IT control environment?

A.
Take a holistic approach: review information available from AWS together with all other information, and document all compliance requirements.
B.
Verify that all control objectives are met and all key controls are designed and operating effectively.
C.
Implement generic control objectives that are not specifically designed to meet their organization’s compliance requirements.
D.
Identify and document controls owned by all third parties.

Correct Answers :

[C]

Explanation :

Customers should ensure that they implement control objectives that are designed to meet their organization’s own unique compliance requirements, therefore answer C is correct.

18. Who is responsible for the configuration of security groups in an AWS environment?

A.
The customer and AWS are both jointly responsible for ensuring that security groups are correctly and securely configured.
B.
AWS is responsible for ensuring that all security groups are correctly and securely configured. Customers do not need to worry about security group configuration.
C.
Neither AWS nor the customer is responsible for the configuration of security groups; security groups are intelligently and automatically configured using traffic heuristics.
D.
AWS provides the security group functionality as a service, but the customer is responsible for correctly and securely configuring their own security groups.

Correct Answers :

[D]

Explanation :

Customers are responsible for ensuring all of their security group configurations are appropriate for their own applications, therefore answer D is correct.

19. Your Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) includes multiple private subnets. The instances in these private subnets must access third-party payment Application Program Interfaces (APIs) over the Internet. Which option will provide highly available Internet access to the instances in the private subnets?

A.
Create an AWS Storage Gateway in each Availability Zone and configure yourrouting to ensure that resources use the AWS Storage Gateway in the same Availability Zone.
B.
Create a customer gateway in each Availability Zone and configure your routing to ensure that resources use the customer gateway in the same Availability Zone.
C.
Create a Network Address Translation (NAT) gateway in each Availability Zone and configure your routing to ensure that resources use the NAT gateway in the same Availability Zone.
D.
Create a NAT gateway in one Availability Zone and configure your routing to ensure that resources use that NAT gateway in all the Availability Zones.

Correct Answers :

[C]

Explanation :

You can use a NAT gateway to enable instances in a private subnet to connect to the Internet or other AWS services, but prevent the Internet from initiating a connection with those instances. If you have resources in multiple Availability Zones and they share one NAT gateway, resources in the other Availability Zones lose Internet access in the event that the NAT gateway’s Availability Zone is down. To create an Availability Zoneindependent architecture, create a NAT gateway in each Availability Zone and configure your routing to ensure that resources use the NAT gateway in the same Availability Zone.

20. A week before Cyber Monday last year, your corporate data center experienced a failed air conditioning unit that caused flooding into the server racks. The resulting outage cost your company significant revenue. Your CIO mandated a move to the cloud, but he is still concerned about catastrophic failures in a data center. What can you do to alleviate his concerns?

A.
Distribute the architecture across multiple Availability Zones.
B.
Use an Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) with subnets.
C.
Launch the compute for the processing services in a placement group.
D.
Purchase Reserved Instances for the processing services instances.

Correct Answers :

[A]

Explanation :

An Availability Zone consists of one or more physical data centers. Availability zones within a region provide inexpensive, low-latency network connectivity to other zones in the same region. This allows you to distribute your application across data centers. In the event of a catastrophic failure in a data center, the application will continue to handle requests.

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